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Cordyceps
15th March 2009, 08:54 PM
Like the title says. Lots of people from various denominations of Christianity believe God is omnipotent (and omni-benevolent), or, put more simply, that he can do anything.

So. Did he say he was omnipotent in a dialogue with someone or was it just, somewhere along the lines, assumed?

yöyo
15th March 2009, 09:33 PM
Because somewhere in the Bible he is described as "Almighty" and from then on Christians have assumed that it means he is literally omnipotent rather than the much more reasonable explanation of "he's way more powerful than us so it's almost like he's practically omnipotent dude."

ShadowGandalf
15th March 2009, 09:54 PM
Because somewhere in the Bible he is described as "Almighty" and from then on Christians have assumed that it means he is literally omnipotent rather than the much more reasonable explanation of "he's way more powerful than us so it's almost like he's practically omnipotent dude."From the wikipedia entry on "Omnipotence":


Scriptural grounds

In the Authorized King James Version (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Authorized_King_James_Version) of the Bible (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bible), as well as several other versions, in Revelation (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Revelation) 19:6 it is stated "...the Lord God omnipotent reigneth" (the original Greek word is παντοκράτωρ, "all-mighty" [4] (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omnipotence#cite_note-3)). Although much of the narrative of the Old Testament (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_Testament) describes the Christian God (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/God) as interacting with creation primarily through persuasion, and only occasionally through force. In New Testament (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Testament) text Paul (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Paul_of_Tarsus)'s assertion implies that 'God's power is limited to portraying only truth'. [4] (http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Titus%201:2;&version=49;). Thus, it is argued, there is no scriptural reason to adhere to omnipotence, and the adoption of the doctrine is merely a result of the synthesis of Hellenic and early Christian thought (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Influence_of_Hellenic_philosophy_on_Christianity). However, it could further be argued that the ability to conflict with truth is not an appropriate representation of accepted definitions of power (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Power_%28philosophy%29), which negates the assertion that a deity does not have infinite powers.

Many other verses in the Christian bible do assert omnipotence of its deity without actually using the word itself. There are several mentions of the Christian deity being referred to as simply "Almighty", showing that the Christian bible supports the belief of an omnipotent deity. Some such verses are listed below:

Psalms 33:8-9: Let all the earth fear the LORD: let all the inhabitants of the world stand in awe of him. For he spoke, and it was done; he commanded, and it stood fast.

Genesis 17:1: And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect. (The Hebrew (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_language) word used here is "shadday" [5] (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omnipotence#cite_note-4))

Jeremiah 32:27: Behold, I am the LORD, the God of all flesh: is there any thing too hard for me?

At his command a storm arose and covered the sea. (Psalm (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psalm) 107:25)

yöyo
15th March 2009, 10:45 PM
Right. The Bible says he's really really powerful. And to us mere mortals, especially so long ago when technology was so archaic and we knew so little as a species, of course it makes sense that we would describe such a being as omnipotent, despite the fact that literal omnipotence is clearly impossible.

ShadowGandalf
16th March 2009, 12:02 AM
literal omnipotence is clearly impossible.

why?

Sr Gregor
16th March 2009, 08:38 AM
What's the scriptural basis for omnibenevolence?

yöyo
16th March 2009, 01:03 PM
why?

That's been answered in many other threads and if you don't believe it now then nothing I say is going to convince you, so let's move on to more productive topics.

Habsfan
31st March 2009, 12:52 AM
What's the scriptural basis for omnibenevolence?

Depends what your definition of omnibenevolence is.

Psalms continually talks about the Love of the Lord enduring forever.

Plenty of OT references to the Lord being gracious and compassionate, slow to anger and rich in love.

God being light (1 John) could be construed as God being good, whereas evil is constantly portrayed as darkness.

Nox
31st March 2009, 10:37 AM
Depends what your definition of omnibenevolence is.

Psalms continually talks about the Love of the Lord enduring forever.

Plenty of OT references to the Lord being gracious and compassionate, slow to anger and rich in love.

God being light (1 John) could be construed as God being good, whereas evil is constantly portrayed as darkness.I think what Gregor was asking wasn't evidence that God is generally good or God by definition is good, but rather what scriptural evidence is there to assume that God is omnibenevolent? A term that implies complete goodness.

oDrew
31st March 2009, 04:08 PM
The only argument I know of that supports the view that God is omnibenevolent in the sense of "perfectly good" is the one which points to Bible verses which show that God is perfect in all of his ways, which means that God must be perfect in whatever way he is good. Thus, the Bible verse I provided is the best evidence for an omnibenevolent God, in my opinion:

"As for God, his way is perfect" (Psalm 18:30)

Alternatively, if one doesn't accept that "omnibenevolent" means perfectly good, but instead means "goodness which is extended to, and through, all things," i.e., "all good," then one only has to point to verses which shows that God is everywhere, and in all things. Thus, if God is good, then his goodness is in all things, and thus he is omnibenevolent by that second definition, too.

"One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all." (Ephesians 4:6)

"For of Him and through Him, and to Him, are all things: to whom be glory forever. Amen." (Romans 11:36)

http://sol.sci.uop.edu/~jfalward/Omnibenevolence.htm

btom4
7th April 2009, 11:36 PM
wow i see some twisted answers here o.O. Ok it does say specifically in teh bible that good is omnipotent (meaning all powerful) omnipresent (meaning everywhere at once) and Omniscient (meaning all knowing). it isn't implied it's actually stated.

I Buck Fuffaloes
7th April 2009, 11:52 PM
wow i see some twisted answers here o.O. Ok it does say specifically in teh bible that good is omnipotent (meaning all powerful) omnipresent (meaning everywhere at once) and Omniscient (meaning all knowing). it isn't implied it's actually stated.

Where? You can't make a statement like that without having some evidence to back it up. You don't even have to put the full verses, just direct us to where in the bible they are.

LoseR
8th April 2009, 12:00 AM
http://sol.sci.uop.edu/~jfalward/Omnibenevolence.htm

hahahahahaha. That is all

John Basedow
8th April 2009, 12:26 AM
good, evil, omnibenevolence, and everything else are human created terms.

i'd hardly call allowing 1 civilization to wipe out another civilization omnibenevolent, but if you're speaking a language invented by something that is omnipotent, then he could just as easily change the meaning of the word before it was even conceived of.

everything god does is good because he has the power to define what is good. that's pretty much all there is to it.